This post is in reply to patm, and his extensive comments on
this subject here.
patm, thank you for the detailed and extensive reply. In some ways I am flattered that you consider
it important to spend so much time with me on this subject, especially as I have
made clear that this subject is not one of the more terribly important topics
for me.
I will attempt to address most of our substantive points of
disagreement, and avoid the peripheral.
First you define
"ownership" as simply "control, use, and disposition." You
are forgetting one crucial aspect of property ownership: exclusion.
Doesn’t “control” cover this for you?
Control
(verb): To exercise restraint or direction over; dominate; command. To eliminate or prevent the flourishing or
spread of.
If I control my property in my house, I certainly consider
the right to exclude someone from entering as an inherent part of control. How can I control my house and not have the
right to exclude others from using it? This
seems consistent with the common definition of control. Is there some meaning of the term “exclusion”
that I do not understand?
…what we mean by [rivalry] is
"a good whose consumption by one consumer prevents simultaneous
consumption by other consumers."
I accept this.
Your definition of ownership
doesn't seem to include any of this.
I suggest it does.
The formula [for Coca-Cola] is not
rivalrous at all.
Control, use, and disposition. The sole, proprietary use. The formula is as unique a piece of property
as is an individual banana. This sole
proprietary use over the formula is no more divisible than is the sole
proprietary use over your banana in the Garden of Eden.
Your second issue is in your
conclusion...you literally state: "an idea is property – the result of man
applying his brain to the physical world". That makes absolutely no sense.
I am sorry you feel this way. I believe it is incumbent on those who
advocate an anti-IP position to come up with a positive case why the one thing
that differentiates man from the animals is not subject to the same theories of
property rights. Apply your analysis to
the formula for Coke. I will not carry the
need to make this proof as my burden.
The problem is you're not realizing
that you cannot replicate a system of IP with contracts.
Who is talking about “replicate”? I do not imagine that the market will come to
the same system as has this government-enabled monstrosity.
Your statement shows no imagination whatsoever. You cannot see the possibility of Coke (“A”) keeping
sole proprietary use of its formula in a private contract system? You cannot see non-disclosure agreements with
its scientists (“B”) and bottlers (“B”)?
You cannot see that if a third party (“C”) comes across the formula –
especially (but not only) in a nefarious way, like theft from the vault – that
the third party can be legally (via enforcement of contract, even though “C”
never signed it), and if necessary forcefully (through private injunction)
restrained from commercializing or spreading it? (And I agree that independent
discovery would not be a violation of Coke’s position…just tough luck for
Coke.)
“C” can be bound by contracts he has not signed. It happens every day. “C” did not sign something that says he would
not trespass on my property, yet he is bound to not trespass on my property. “C” did not sign a document recognizing that
I have title in my car, yet he is bound to recognize that I have title in my
car. The burden of making a positive
case lies with the anti-IP advocate to demonstrate why this is not applicable
to the sole proprietary use of the formula for Coke, just as it is applicable
to the sole proprietary use of your banana.
You cannot see that the expense of anyone claiming ownership
of IP having to do this through private means would likely eliminate
enforcement of most of the frivolous nonsense about IP restrictions (including much
of today’s government-enabled system which I do not state should be replicated,
and likely would not be replicated) – whistling tunes, using quotes from the
internet, etc., thus providing a market-based solution? Why develop circuitous and
complex means and theories to enforce that which a market can enforce without
much help?
Even Hoppe suggests that private enforcement would go a long
way toward resolving any IP controversies: when asked about the possibility of
using private enforcement in copyright – one of the least defensible
subcategories of IP as property, in my simpleton opinion – Hoppe
replied “That would go a long way in the right direction.”
So I guess Hoppe is under the same false delusion that I am
regarding the possibility of contracts and private enforcement – and he applies
it to what I consider it to be one of the least defensible aspects of IP.
I will add: I see zero possibility in a libertarian world
for a Coca-Cola to not attempt to establish and enforce such control through
private means, and I see zero argument that Coke’s doing so violates any
libertarian principles. The burden of
proof lies with the anti-IP advocates. Hoppe
did not pooh-pooh the possibility; there must be at least some merit to it.
patm, once again, I do appreciate your taking the time in
this most distant and rarely-visited corner of the internet. Like my shadow created by the early morning
sun, you make me feel significantly larger than I am.
In any case, such dialogue helps me to further hone my
thoughts and conclusions. I remain satisfied
in my conclusions regarding IP.
Please see my reply here:
ReplyDeletehttp://mises.org/community/forums/t/33282.aspx
I will not post at Mises in response. I haven’t commented on this subject more than once or twice in the last several days outside of my blog, and even here only in response to others – like you. I have heard enough on this, and the subject isn’t that important to me. If we ever see a libertarian dream world, I am certain Coke will have rights in its formula of Coca-Cola as I have described.
DeleteTo a couple of your points:
“My position is that the formula is not an ownable thing...yet in your attempt to prove otherwise, you begin by assuming that it is owned. That is not an argument. It is called "logical fallacy" for a reason.”
And my retort? My position is that the formula is an ownable thing...yet in your attempt to prove otherwise, you begin by assuming that it cannot be owned. That is not an argument. It is called "logical fallacy" for a reason.
There – now we are even, except for this: As the product of man’s (muscular) efforts can be owned, it is reasonable to begin with the starting point that this is true for the products of the mind as well. I remain firm in the position that it is incumbent on the anti-IP advocates to demonstrate otherwise.
If you do or don’t take on this challenge, it is neither here nor there for me. Frankly, after almost two weeks of this, I don’t believe there is a cogent argument available.
“How is that a congruent response to my point?”
You do not post the comment in context in your post at Mises – a nice tactic when you conveniently post elsewhere. A cheap trick, designed to score points as opposed to shed light.
Your comment regarding Hoppe’s statement: “Are you kidding?: …How do you get more clear than that?”
Talk to Hoppe, he said both things. Why didn’t you include the entire quote, or at least provide a link to the original at the Mises site (as I did in my post for your reference - I didn't have anything to hide)? This is another cheap trick.
I have no idea why my you find dealing with me to be so important. You have not moved me in my position, other than to now conclude you are in it for scoring points as opposed to having a conversation.
First I want to say that I am interested to discuss this with you because you seem to be honestly seeking truth, and you seem to be pretty intellectually honest.
DeleteSecond, I meant no malice or trickery in the way I posted in the forum. I was just trying to make it as easy to follow as possible. I provided an entire "history" section with all the relevant backstory and direct links to each of the three areas of our conversation.
I left out your immediate commentary after "I'm sorry you feel that way", because it was irrelevant to the point: I had pointed out that your statement did not make logical sense, and your reply was a statement about your belief about the burden of proof. Burden of proof has absolutely no bearing on what I said about your statement not making logical sense.
So perhaps you would be willing to answer my question:
How you can say an idea is property that is the result of applying one's brain to the physical world...when knowledge guides action, and therefore the idea must exist prior to any sort of action in the physical world?
I don't understand why you keep refusing to even address this simple question, and yet accuse me of evasion and trickery.
Getting back to my post, I admit I did forget to link directly to the Hoppe quote. You had already linked to it in your post (which I linked to), and it was cumbersome enough trying to translate that whole response portion from this Blogger-comment bare-bones HTML, to the forum language, and I simply forgot.
I've made the appropriate updates.
So to get to your comment...
"And my retort? My position is that the formula is an ownable thing...yet in your attempt to prove otherwise, you begin by assuming that it cannot be owned. That is not an argument. It is called 'logical fallacy' for a reason."
That's not true at all. I and everyone else explain quite clearly why the formula is not ownable:
1) The concept of property only arises because of the scarcity (i.e. rivalrousness) of resources. Again, in the Garden of Eden, resources would not be scarce, so it is safe to contend that there would be no such concept as "property". (See Hoppe A Theory of Socialism and Capitalism and The Economics and Ethics of Private Property)
2) Ideas – recipes, formulas, statements, arguments, algorithms, theorems, melodies, patterns, rhythms, images, etc... are not rivalrous. Knowledge is an inexhaustible thing, that once you are aware of knowledge you are free to use it to guide your actions, whatsoever.
3) Even forgetting #1 and #2...to contend that knowledge is ownable, and that one can have a property right in ideas, is incompatible with the real property rights that we both agree on. As I said, this concept of "intellectual property" creates a new set of rights, that contradict the real property rights that virtually all libertarians recognize as legitimate.
I find it interesting that you continue to skip over my pointing out the non-rivalrous nature of the Coca-Cola formula...and how your concept of having a property right in it, allows you to come into my home and dictate what I can or cannot do with my own ingredients.
I have to assume that you refuse to address this because it kills your entire pro-IP position, and shows quite clearly that IP violates real property rights.
Please see my reply here; as it is somewhat extensive, I have written a new post:
Deletehttp://bionicmosquito.blogspot.com/2013/04/a-market-solution-for-ip.html
begin quote:
ReplyDelete“My position is that the formula is not an ownable thing...yet in your attempt to prove otherwise, you begin by assuming that it is owned. That is not an argument. It is called "logical fallacy" for a reason.”
And my retort? My position is that the formula is an ownable thing...yet in your attempt to prove otherwise, you begin by assuming that it cannot be owned. That is not an argument. It is called "logical fallacy" for a reason.
end quote
This is the entirety of the debate. Kinsella's whole position starts with the assumption that IP is invalid and all his conclusions are based on this assumption. It is as if one mathematician assumes Euclidian geometry and another assumes non-Euclidian geometry and then they try to prove the other one wrong because he got a different result. Pointless.
The only thing that matters is whether private law would recognize IP, not whether the validity of the concept is derived from some particular set of assumptions. And whether or not private law would recognize IP would be based on market forces in the arbitration of IP disputes.
ED U, I have been thinking about my evolution in this. I started, as referenced in my first post here, with just a glimpse of the bigger picture you describe - the method of enforcement.
Deletehttp://bionicmosquito.blogspot.com/2013/03/intellectual-property-brouhaha.html
You go further - and this is where I now am (almost back to my starting point, but further developed), as referenced in my last post here.
http://bionicmosquito.blogspot.com/2013/04/a-market-solution-for-ip.html
The market, through the development of adjudication processes, will develop the most acceptable answers.
The concept of "property" and "own" are not as objective as we would like, and these have meant different things in different societies. Societal culture and custom influence the acceptable boundaries.