The continuing conversation regarding immigration has moved
on to some of the finer points – at least finer for me.
Can the State “Own” Anything?
I think I have played a little fast and loose with the term
“own” when it comes to its application to the state. I have previously defined the term “own” as
control, use and disposition. If left at
this, I believe it is safe to say that the state owns F-16 fighter jets,
aircraft carriers, the White House, etc.
But “own” implies legitimacy in possessing the object. A thief certainly possesses the stolen goods; a thief has the control, use and
disposition of the stolen goods. Is it
appropriate to conclude that the thief “owns” the goods?
I think not. As the
state possesses its goods via the theft of taxation and inflation, I think it
is inaccurate to say that the state “owns” anything. More accurately, the state – like a common
burglar – is in possession of stolen goods.
The state “possesses” but does
not “own.”
What Does it Mean to
“Own” Land?
From my understanding, libertarian theory regarding
ownership begins with the homestead principle:
The homestead principle
is the principle by which one gains ownership of an unowned natural resource by
performing an act of original appropriation. Appropriation could be enacted by
putting an unowned resource to active use (as with using it to produce a
product), joining it with previously acquired property or by marking it as
owned (as with livestock branding).
To discuss homesteading, the starting point is John Locke:
Though the earth and all inferior
creatures be common to all men, yet every man has a property in his own person.
This nobody has any right to but himself. The labour of his body and the work of his hands, we may say, are
properly his. Whatsoever, then, he removes out of the state that Nature hath
provided and left it in, he hath mixed his labour
with it, and joined to it something that is his own, and thereby makes it his property.
When it comes to land, what does it mean to mix his labor
with the land? If there is an objective
standard, I cannot come to it. Certainly
if one clears the trees and farms the cleared land regularly, this seems
straightforward. What if he has a
ten-year plan for land-clearing, regularly clearing one portion at a time? What if he leaves one section fallow for a
season?
Then there is the homebuilder – he clears the land and
builds a home. What if he leaves some
land on his “property” in its natural state?
Is it open to anyone else to homestead?
Then again, just because he claims an entire continent – building a home
but otherwise leaving virtually all of it in its natural state, is it deemed
that he owns it?
It seems to me that even putting a fence around property
could be sufficient to meet the principle of mixing one’s labor with the land. I say could,
because it is easy to imagine a situation where it is rather unreasonable. For example, what if it was claimed that the
fence captured all the land outside of it rather than inside?
Imagine the first individual to cross into Oklahoma at the
time of the land rush of 1889 (yes, I know he wasn’t actually the first…and I
know the example isn’t perfect). What
if, the moment he crossed into the region, he dropped a fence of one foot in
diameter: “All outside of this boundary is mine!”
So I imagine custom has something to do with this.